Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 02:54
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How do flat Earthers explain the existence of other spherical planets?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Is visiting holy shrines (dargahs) or graves haraam in Islam?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.